[2 Thessalonians 2:1-7: 1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. 3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; 4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God. 5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things? 6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time. 7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.]

The above paragraph is a quote from the Bible and I am having some trouble identifying the pronouns, noun clauses, substantives, and antecedents in it. It has been a very, very long time since I have studied English grammar. My questions are the following:
(1) Is the phrase in verse 3 \\\"that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition\\\" a substantive noun clause?
(2)Is the phrase in verse 3 \\\"that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition\\\" the antecedent of the pronouns \\\"Who\\\", \\\"he\\\", and \\\"himself\\\" in verse 4 and \\\"he\\\" in verse 6?
(3) Is the phrase \\\"what withholdeth\\\" in verse 6 a substantive noun clause?
(4) Is the phrase \\\"what withholdeth\\\" in verse 6 the antecedent of the two occurrences of the pronoun \\\"he\\\" in verse 7? There are people that argue that the two occurrences of \\\"he\\\" in verse 7 refer back to the phrase \\\"that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition\\\" in verse 3. I believe that both occurrences of the pronoun \\\"he\\\" in verse 7 refer to the phrase \\\"what withholdeth\\\" in verse 6. Speaking from a strictly grammatical perspective, who is right?
(5) I understand that, generally speaking, the gender of the pronoun should agree with the gender of its antecedent. I believe that in this case we have male pronoun \\\"he\\\" referring back to a neuter noun clause \\\"what withholdeth\\\". Please, correct me if I am wrong. there are a number of other cases in the New Testament of the Bible where male pronouns have neuter antecedents. Could this one be one of those also?