I know that "nor" is conjunction in the set of negative possibilities: "neither ...nor". I wonder how they use "nor" without "neither".
"French is not the private property of French people, nor English of English people."
Please help me. Thanks.

Your example works for me. With neither I would prefer:

"French is not the private property of French people; neither is English the private property of English people."

With both:

"Neither French nor English is the private property of its people."

Thanks Craig for helping me.
But I want to know more about the usage of nor in this context.
Is this sentence right? Is it right to use "nor" without "neither".
Thanks.